What is infinite regress example?
Examples: “The world is supported by four elephants standing on the back of a giant turtle, which is standing on the back of another giant turtle, which is standing on the back of another giant turtle…” Eggs exist because they are laid by chickens; and, of course, chickens are hatched from eggs.”
What is the regress argument in philosophy?
In epistemology, the regress argument is the argument that any proposition requires a justification. This means that any proposition whatsoever can be endlessly (infinitely) questioned, resulting in infinite regress. It is a problem in epistemology and in any general situation where a statement has to be justified.
Why is infinite regress a fallacy?
It’s a fallacy because it is begging the question that is to say that it is a circular argument. Whether referring to the origins of the universe or any other regressive context, the answer simply moves the question back into infinite regress rather than answering it.
What is infinite regress in the cosmological argument?
An infinite regress argument is an argument against a theory based on the fact that this theory leads to an infinite regress. A positive infinite regress argument employs the regress in question to argue in support of a theory by showing that its alternative involves a vicious regress.
What is meant by infinite regress?
An infinite regress is a series of appropriately related elements with a first member but no last member, where each element leads to or generates the next in some sense. An infinite regress argument is an argument that makes appeal to an infinite regress.
Is an infinite regress illogical?
While it’s true that an infinite regress is a logical error, not all propositions are contingent truths. Perhaps most historically significant, many philosophers have argued for the existence of an “uncaused cause” of the universe, in order to avoid an infinite regress of causal events.
Is time infinite in philosophy?
Temporal finitism is the doctrine that time is finite in the past. The philosophy of Aristotle, expressed in such works as his Physics, held that although space was finite, with only void existing beyond the outermost sphere of the heavens, time was infinite.
Can a finite being define an infinite being?
From this point on, the finite was understood to be a lower level of being, one that possessed in a limited (and therefore imperfect) way some attribute or property that Infinite Being (God) posessed in an unlimited (and therefore supremely perfect) manner.
What is the infinite in philosophy?
Aristotle and after It is always possible to think of a larger number: for the number of times a magnitude can be bisected is infinite. Hence the infinite is potential, never actual; the number of parts that can be taken always surpasses any assigned number.
What does infinite being mean?
God is fashioned as an infinite being, i.e. one who’s abilities have no non-logical limitations. This definition, however, leaves us in an awkward epistemological position, as it ostensibly renders all potential evidence for such a being inherently ambiguous.
Are humans finite?
All human beings begin life by being born – and all human beings die. In these two ways, we are finite: our lives are not endless, but they begin and they come to an end. Historically, however, philosophers have concentrated attention on only one of these two ways in which we are finite: mortality.
Is infinity infinity defined?
First of all, infinity is not a real number so actually dividing something by zero is undefined. In calculus ∞ is an informal notion of something “larger than any finite number”, but it’s not a well-defined number.
What is the definition of an infinite regress argument?
An infinite regress is a series of appropriately related elements with a first member but no last member, where each element leads to or generates the next in some sense. An infinite regress argument is an argument that makes appeal to an infinite regress.
Why is the theory of infinite regress implausible?
Another reason for the implausibility of theories involving an infinite regress is due to the principle known as Ockham’s razor, which posits that we should avoid ontological extravagance by not multiplying entities without necessity.
Is it true that every infinite regress is vicious?
Traditionally, it was often assumed without much argument that each infinite regress is vicious but this assumption has been put into question in contemporary philosophy. In most cases, it is not self-evident whether an infinite regress is vicious or not.
Do you think the PSR considers infinite regress?
The PSR does not consider infinite regression. Whether the universe is infinitely old or has a definite beginning makes no difference to this argument. The PSR claims the whole universe requires a sufficient explanation, whether it is infinite or finite.